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I have a question on case endings
by Guest User - Tuesday, 8 January 2008, 06:12 PM
  Hi all this is my first post! I am trying to learn Biblical Greek grammar. My question is the word "εξοθσιασ" Why is this word a genitive, singular, feminine and not a accusative, pluaral, feminine? Both of these case ending are the same. Is there a rule or something? Thanks
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Re: I have a question on case endings
by Greg Brush - Wednesday, 9 January 2008, 12:10 AM
  Since εξουσίας is both a genitive singular and accusative plural form in ancient/classical/Koine Greek, the surrounding context determines which use is intended. If preceded by the article της, it's genitive singular; if by τας, it's accusative plural. If there's no article before it, you have to determine by context whether the word is used as a singular (and thus genitive) or plural (thus accusative).

Note that this site is oriented solely to Modern Greek, which has various distinct differences from the Koine Greek of the New Testament. In Modern Greek, there would be no question about this word, because the genitive singular form in Modern is εξουσίας, while the accusative plural form is εξουσίες.

You might want to take a look at "Reading ancient texts for Modern Greek speakers" in this General Questions Forum, "courses" in the Technical Forum, and my reply to "Some doubts of a beginner" in Discussion Forum 1 for a little more about the differences between Modern and ancient/Koine Greek.

Greg Brush
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Re: I have a question on case endings
by Guest User - Wednesday, 9 January 2008, 07:49 PM
  Thank you so much Greg,that was just the answer I was looking for.Thats the hard part about not going to a class. I don't have anyone to bounce things off of. But thanks again for your help.